Have been giving poker a break for the last week and a half and went to have a game last night.
Bet365 $5 STT.
I played pretty tight throughout, sacrificed a few blinds due to poor hands, was down to about 450 chips but worked my way back up to 900.
6 people left, I have taken a couple of hands out of last 4 and I am on SB. Blinds were 80, 160.
Everyone folds to me and I am sitting with QQ. The big blind was a looser player, had been down at about 400 but, in part due to winning a 3 way all in (he had went all in on 10,10 and hit 10 on the flop and 9, 9 on the turn/river for a full house), was now chip leader on 3000+, I was last out of 6 on 900. He had played a few hands.
I raised for 320. He re-raised me 160. I was tempted just to call this but would only have been left with just 340, very short stacked compared to the rest of the table. I was pretty much certain I was ahead so went all in with my remaining 500. He called.
He turned AJs (spades). Flop came K, 7, 8 rainbow (no spades). Of course the turn then came 9 and the river came up with a 10 to give him a J high straight
My first thoughts (which were proved correct) were that I was ahead pre-flop and wanted to get as many chips in as possible, while getting him to play as well, at that point as I figured I had a decent advantage. I would have been delighted to get dealt QQ and go all in 900 and have him call me, which in effect I ended up with.
My thoughts later on were that maybe I shouldn't have re-raised him when going all in, rather just called his re-raise leaving me with 340.
I thought about this and the flop that came. I am pretty sure I would have went all in post flop as I didn't put him on a great hand. However is 340 a big enough bet to get him to lay down his hand when post flop he has A high at best? Given his stack, is he pot committed having bet 400 on top of his BB?
Pretty p'd off about going out in this manner but question is, would anyone have played it differently?